ExamSpark CUET UG

Mock Test 16 Performance Solutions

Subject: Economics

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Q1. A country's Production Possibility Curve (PPC) for Capital Goods and Consumer Goods is bowed outwards. If the country experiences a significant technological breakthrough that only enhances the efficiency of producing Capital Goods, how will the PPC change?

Correct Answer: Option A (It will shift outwards parallelly.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q2. Consider a consumer in equilibrium, purchasing two goods, X and Y. If the Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRSxy) is 2, and the price of Good Y (Py) is ₹50, what must be the price of Good X (Px) for the consumer to be at their optimal choice?

Correct Answer: Option A (₹25)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q3. In the context of the Law of Variable Proportions, the 'point of inflection' on the Total Product (TP) curve corresponds to which of the following points on the Marginal Product (MP) curve?

Correct Answer: Option A (The point where the MP curve is at its maximum.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q4. A firm's total cost function is given by TC = 500 + 20Q + 0.5Q². What is the firm's Average Fixed Cost (AFC) when it produces 50 units of output (Q)?

Correct Answer: Option A (₹10)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q5. In a monopolistically competitive market, a firm's ability to earn supernormal profits in the short run is primarily due to ______, while its tendency to earn only normal profits in the long run is due to ______.

Correct Answer: Option A (Product differentiation; Barriers to entry)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q6. If the cross-price elasticity of demand between Good A and Good B is -1.5, and the income elasticity of demand for Good B is -0.8, which of the following statements is most accurate?

Correct Answer: Option A (Good A and Good B are substitutes, and Good B is a normal good.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q7. The government imposes a binding price floor on agricultural produce. Which of the following is an unavoidable consequence of this policy in the market?

Correct Answer: Option A (A shortage of the agricultural produce.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q8. Which of the following transactions would be classified as an 'accommodating item' in the Balance of Payments accounts?

Correct Answer: Option A (A foreign company making a direct investment in India's telecom sector.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q9. The "Paradox of Thrift" suggests that if all households in an economy decide to increase their savings simultaneously, the aggregate result might be:

Correct Answer: Option A (A higher level of aggregate output and employment in the short run.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q10. In the Keynesian framework, if the Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC) is 0.75, what would be the value of the Tax Multiplier?

Correct Answer: Option A (-4)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q11. Stagflation, a situation characterized by high inflation and high unemployment, is best represented in the AD-AS model by:

Correct Answer: Option A (A rightward shift in the Aggregate Demand (AD) curve.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q12. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decides to increase the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR). What is the most likely immediate impact of this measure?

Correct Answer: Option A (It increases the credit creation capacity of commercial banks.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q13. Which of the following is NOT considered a part of the 'structural reforms' initiated under the New Economic Policy of 1991?

Correct Answer: Option A (Deregulation of the industrial sector.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q14. The 'Great Proletarian Cultural Revolution' is a significant historical event associated with which country's development path?

Correct Answer: Option A (India)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q15. A situation where a person is technically employed but their contribution to the total output is zero or negligible is a defining characteristic of:

Correct Answer: Option A (Frictional Unemployment)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q16. What is the primary difference between 'human capital' and 'human development'?

Correct Answer: Option A (Human capital is a stock concept, while human development is a flow concept.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q17. The strategy of 'Import Substitution Industrialization' (ISI) adopted by India after independence was primarily aimed at:

Correct Answer: Option A (Maximizing foreign exchange earnings through exports.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q18. From the following national income data, calculate the Gross National Product at Market Price (GNP_MP).
- Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDP_FC): ₹80,000 cr
- Depreciation: ₹5,000 cr
- Net Indirect Taxes: ₹10,000 cr
- Net Factor Income from Abroad (NFIA): -₹2,000 cr

Correct Answer: Option A (: -₹2,000 cr)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q19. An expansionary fiscal policy involving increased government spending financed by borrowing might be less effective than predicted if it leads to a rise in interest rates, which in turn reduces private investment. This phenomenon is known as:

Correct Answer: Option A (The Liquidity Trap)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

Q20. Under a managed floating exchange rate system, if a country's currency is appreciating rapidly and the central bank wishes to curb this appreciation, what action would it take?

Correct Answer: Option A (Sell its own currency in the foreign exchange market.)

Explanation: Detailed explanation will be updated shortly.

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